This free NPTE practice test has 50 questions written and reviewed by the physical therapists at TherapyExams, in the same single-best-answer format the NPTE uses. The questions are spread across the FSBPT content outline in roughly the proportions the real exam uses, so your results point you to the right areas to study.
Free: one complete NPTE practice exam
Sign up for the free 7-day trial (no credit card) and take one complete, 225-question NPTE-style practice exam, the same length as the real NPTE-PT. Use it alongside the 50 questions on this page.
Sign up free for the full-length exam →How this NPTE practice test works
- 50 questions, grouped by content area. 13 musculoskeletal, 12 neuromuscular, 7 cardiopulmonary, 8 from the smaller systems, 3 system interactions and 7 non-system, which roughly mirrors how FSBPT splits the 180 scored items on the NPTE-PT content outline.
- Click an answer to see whether you're right, the correct answer, and a short explanation. Your score updates as you go.
- No signup and nothing saved. Refresh the page or use the reset button to start again.
- Time yourself if you want exam pacing. The NPTE-PT gives you 5 hours for 225 questions, about 80 seconds each, so 50 questions in about 67 minutes is a fair target.
What your score does and doesn't tell you
The NPTE is scored on a 200–800 scale, and FSBPT doesn't publish a percentage that equals the passing score of 600. So no 50-question quiz can predict your NPTE result. Use your score here to find the content areas costing you points, not as a pass/fail forecast. Our NPTE passing score guide explains why.
Is there a free full-length NPTE practice exam?
Yes. Sign up for TherapyExams' free 7-day trial, with no credit card, and you can take one complete NPTE-style practice exam of 225 questions, the same number as the real NPTE-PT. The 50 questions on this page need no signup at all. FSBPT's official practice exam, PEAT, uses a retired NPTE form but costs $99.
- Start here: take the 50 free questions below to find your weak content areas.
- Then go full length: a 225-question exam tests the stamina and pacing the real exam demands, about 80 seconds a question over 5 hours.
- Keep going: the trial also includes our flashcards, mnemonics and progress tracking. Premium ($79 one-time, 6 months) adds a second full-length exam.
Sign up free and take the full exam
Musculoskeletal practice questions
When mobilizing the glenohumeral joint to restore abduction, in which direction should the therapist PRIMARILY apply the mobilization force?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Inferior
The glenohumeral joint follows the convex-on-concave rule: the convex humeral head moves on the concave glenoid, so the glide is opposite to the direction of bone movement. Abduction rolls the humeral head superiorly, so the restoring glide is inferior.
A patient has restricted shoulder ROM with external rotation MOST limited, abduction moderately limited, and internal rotation LEAST limited. This pattern is MOST consistent with which condition?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Adhesive capsulitis
External rotation most limited, then abduction, then internal rotation is the glenohumeral capsular pattern. It points to a capsular problem such as adhesive capsulitis (or glenohumeral osteoarthritis). Rotator cuff tears, bursitis and labral tears typically produce non-capsular, selective limitations.
Which special test is BEST used to reproduce symptoms of cervical radiculopathy by narrowing the intervertebral foramen?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Spurling test
The Spurling test combines cervical lateral flexion (often with extension and rotation) toward the symptomatic side with axial compression, narrowing the intervertebral foramen. Reproduction of arm symptoms is positive. It is more specific than sensitive, so a positive result helps rule radiculopathy in. The distraction test does the opposite, relieving symptoms by opening the foramen.
Which special test is the MOST sensitive for detecting an ACL tear?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Lachman test
Among clinical tests for ACL rupture, the Lachman test (performed at about 20–30° of knee flexion) is the most sensitive. The pivot shift is highly specific but less sensitive and hard to perform on a guarding patient, and the anterior drawer is less sensitive, particularly in acute injuries. McMurray assesses the menisci.
Foot slap during loading response MOST likely indicates weakness of which muscle?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Tibialis anterior
Just after initial contact, the dorsiflexors, chiefly tibialis anterior, contract eccentrically to lower the forefoot to the floor. When they are weak, the foot slaps down. Weak dorsiflexors also cause foot drop and a steppage pattern in swing.
Which Salter-Harris fracture type is the MOST common epiphyseal fracture in children?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Type II
Salter-Harris type II fractures, through the physis and exiting through the metaphysis, are the most common physeal fractures in children. The SALTR mnemonic: I Straight across, II Above, III Lower, IV Through, V Rammed (crush). Type V carries the worst prognosis for growth.
A baseball pitcher has progressive posterior shoulder pain, weakness of abductors and lateral rotators, and muscle wasting superior AND inferior to the scapular spine. Which structure is MOST likely injured?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Suprascapular nerve
The suprascapular nerve supplies both supraspinatus (above the scapular spine) and infraspinatus (below it). Entrapment at the suprascapular notch, seen in overhead athletes, weakens abduction and external rotation and wastes both muscles. The axillary nerve supplies deltoid and teres minor, the long thoracic nerve supplies serratus anterior, and the spinal accessory nerve supplies trapezius.
A patient with a mid-shaft humeral fracture presents with wrist drop and sensory loss over the dorsal first web space. Which nerve is MOST likely injured?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Radial nerve
The radial nerve runs in the spiral groove of the humerus and is the nerve most often injured with mid-shaft humeral fractures. Radial nerve palsy causes wrist drop (loss of wrist and finger extension) and sensory loss over the dorsal first web space.
A patient with pes planus has a positive "too many toes" sign and weak/painful single-leg heel raise. Which structure is MOST likely involved?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Posterior tibialis tendon
Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction is the most common cause of acquired adult flatfoot. As the tendon fails, the arch collapses and the forefoot abducts, so more toes are visible from behind ("too many toes"). A weak or painful single-leg heel raise, with the heel failing to invert, is a key finding.
After Bankart repair for anterior instability, which position should the patient PRIMARILY avoid to protect the repair?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Abduction and external rotation
A Bankart repair reattaches the anterior-inferior labrum and capsule. Combined abduction and external rotation, the apprehension position, stresses that repair most, so it is protected for the period set by the surgeon's protocol.
After a posterior approach THA, which combination of movements is the PRIMARY dislocation precaution?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Flexion beyond 90°, adduction past midline, and internal rotation
The posterior approach violates the posterior capsule, so the dislocation position is hip flexion past 90°, adduction past midline and internal rotation. Anterior-approach precautions are the reverse: extension, external rotation and adduction. Duration depends on the surgeon's protocol.
After PCL reconstruction, which exercise should be PRIMARILY avoided and why?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Open kinetic chain hamstring curls; they produce posterior tibial force
The PCL resists posterior tibial translation. Open-chain hamstring curls pull the tibia posteriorly and load the graft, so they are avoided early after PCL reconstruction. Quadriceps work, which draws the tibia anteriorly, is emphasized instead.
A patient with lumbar spinal stenosis reports bilateral LE pain and numbness worsened by walking and prolonged standing, relieved by sitting and forward flexion. Which exercise approach is MOST appropriate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Lumbar flexion-based exercises, stationary cycling, and posterior pelvic tilts
Neurogenic claudication from lumbar stenosis is eased by flexion, which enlarges the canal and foramina, and worsened by extension. A flexion-biased program, such as posterior pelvic tilts, knee-to-chest and stationary cycling, fits this patient. Repeated extension would aggravate the symptoms.
Neuromuscular and nervous systems practice questions
Which feature BEST differentiates spasticity from rigidity?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Spasticity is velocity-dependent; rigidity is NOT
Spasticity, from an upper motor neuron lesion, is velocity-dependent: the faster the passive stretch, the greater the resistance, sometimes with a clasp-knife release. Rigidity, from basal ganglia disease such as Parkinson disease, is felt as uniform lead-pipe or ratchety cogwheel resistance regardless of stretch speed.
A patient has Bell's palsy (CN VII LMN lesion) affecting the left side. Which finding BEST distinguishes this from a stroke affecting CN VII?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. The entire ipsilateral face including the forehead is paralyzed
A lower motor neuron facial nerve lesion (Bell palsy) paralyzes the entire same-side face, including the forehead. An upper motor neuron lesion such as stroke weakens only the opposite lower face; the forehead is spared because its motor neurons receive input from both hemispheres.
A patient is unstable in CTSIB conditions 5 and 6 (eyes closed/visual conflict on a moving surface) but stable in conditions 1–4. This pattern MOST likely indicates impairment of which sensory system?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Vestibular system
In CTSIB conditions 5 and 6, vision is removed or conflicting and the surface is compliant, leaving vestibular input as the only reliable balance cue. Losing balance only in those two conditions indicates a vestibular deficit.
A patient with a spinal cord lesion has ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration with contralateral loss of pain and temperature below the lesion level. This presentation is MOST consistent with:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
Cord hemisection (Brown-Séquard syndrome) damages the corticospinal tract and dorsal columns on the same side, which haven't crossed yet at that level, and the spinothalamic tract, which has already crossed. The result is ipsilateral weakness and proprioceptive loss with contralateral pain and temperature loss.
A cervical SCI patient presents with upper extremity weakness greater than lower extremity weakness, with sacral sensation spared. Which syndrome is MOST likely?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Central cord syndrome
Central cord syndrome, typically after a cervical hyperextension injury in an older adult with spondylosis, damages the central cord. Arm fibers lie more centrally in the corticospinal tract than leg fibers, so the arms are weaker than the legs. Sacral fibers lie most laterally, so sacral sensation is usually spared.
A patient has ipsilateral facial pain/temperature loss AND contralateral body pain/temperature loss after a stroke. Which vascular territory is MOST likely affected?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
Ipsilateral facial and contralateral body pain and temperature loss is the crossed pattern of lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome. It is classically attributed to the posterior inferior cerebellar artery and often results from vertebral artery occlusion. Other features include vertigo, dysphagia, ipsilateral Horner syndrome and ipsilateral ataxia.
ACA stroke MOST commonly produces which pattern of weakness?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Leg weaker than arm
The anterior cerebral artery supplies the medial surface of the frontal and parietal lobes, where the leg and foot are represented, so an ACA stroke weakens the contralateral leg more than the arm. Middle cerebral artery strokes typically affect the face and arm more than the leg.
A patient with multiple sclerosis reports worsening fatigue, visual blurring, and LE weakness during a hot bath. This is BEST explained by:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Uhthoff's phenomenon
Uhthoff phenomenon is a temporary worsening of MS symptoms with a rise in body temperature, for example a hot bath, fever or exercise, because heat further slows conduction in demyelinated axons. It settles with cooling and is not a relapse.
Which intervention should NOT be used on a hemiplegic shoulder in the flaccid stage?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Overhead pulley exercises
Overhead pulleys move a flaccid hemiplegic shoulder through uncontrolled range without the scapular upward rotation and rotator cuff activity that normally protect it, and are associated with shoulder pain. The flaccid arm should be supported with a lap tray or arm trough, positioned carefully, and supported in upright positions.
A patient with a C6 complete SCI uses tenodesis grasp for functional tasks. Why should the physical therapist NOT stretch the patient's finger flexors?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Stretching will destroy the functional tenodesis grasp
At C6, active wrist extension passively tightens the long finger flexors, closing the fingers to grasp. This is tenodesis. Keeping some tightness in the finger flexors preserves that grasp, so they are not stretched with the wrist extended. Stretch the finger flexors only with the wrist flexed.
A patient with T6 SCI suddenly develops a pounding headache, profuse sweating above the lesion level, and blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg. What is the MOST appropriate FIRST action?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Sit the patient upright and check for noxious stimuli below the lesion
Sudden pounding headache, sweating above the lesion and severe hypertension in SCI at or above T6 is autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency. First sit the patient up (lower the legs if possible) to reduce blood pressure, loosen tight clothing, and look for the noxious trigger below the lesion, most often a full bladder, blocked catheter or bowel. Monitor blood pressure and get medical help if it doesn't resolve.
Which cueing strategy is MOST effective for improving gait initiation in a patient with Parkinson's disease freezing of gait?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Visual cues (floor lines/laser pointer) and auditory cues (metronome/rhythmic counting)
External cues, visual (lines on the floor, a laser on the walker) or auditory (metronome, rhythmic counting), help people with Parkinson disease initiate steps and overcome freezing, likely by bypassing impaired basal ganglia automaticity. "Walk normally" instructions, stretching and ankle weights don't address freezing.
Cardiovascular and pulmonary practice questions
A patient on the cardiac telemetry unit shows a heart rate of 42 bpm with complete dissociation between P waves and QRS complexes on the ECG monitor. This rhythm is MOST consistent with:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Third-degree (complete) AV block
Complete dissociation of P waves and QRS complexes is third-degree (complete) AV block: no atrial impulses reach the ventricles, which beat from an escape rhythm. The rate is about 40–60 bpm with a junctional escape and 20–40 bpm with a ventricular escape. Third-degree block without a pacemaker is a contraindication to exercise.
During pulmonary function testing, a patient demonstrates an FEV₁/FVC ratio of 62% with a normal FVC. This pattern is MOST consistent with:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Obstructive lung disease
An FEV1/FVC ratio below 0.70 with a normal FVC indicates airflow obstruction, as in COPD or asthma. Restrictive disease reduces FVC and total lung capacity, while the ratio stays normal or rises.
A patient in Phase II cardiac rehab is taking propranolol (a beta-blocker). During exercise, the patient's heart rate reaches only 98 bpm despite vigorous effort and reports feeling "somewhat hard" exertion. What is the BEST approach to monitor this patient's exercise intensity?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Use the Borg RPE scale (12–16) as the primary intensity guide
Beta-blockers blunt the heart rate response to exercise, so heart-rate targets based on predicted maximum are unreliable. Rating of perceived exertion becomes the primary guide; about 12–16 on the 6–20 Borg scale corresponds to moderate-to-vigorous training. "Somewhat hard" (13) is an appropriate intensity, and pushing workload to reach a heart rate target is unsafe.
A patient presents with sudden onset of dyspnea at rest, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and hemoptysis following recent knee replacement surgery. This presentation is MOST consistent with:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Pulmonary embolism
Sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia and hemoptysis after joint replacement surgery point to pulmonary embolism. Recent surgery and reduced mobility create venous stasis, one element of Virchow's triad. This is a medical emergency.
A patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) presents with orthopnea, bilateral crackles on auscultation, and an S3 heart sound. These findings are MOST indicative of:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Left-sided heart failure
Orthopnea, bibasilar crackles and an S3 reflect pulmonary congestion from left ventricular failure. Right-sided failure shows up systemically instead: peripheral edema, jugular venous distension, hepatomegaly and weight gain.
A physical therapist is teaching breathing techniques to a patient with COPD. Which breathing technique is MOST appropriate as the PRIMARY intervention to reduce air trapping and dyspnea?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Pursed-lip breathing
Pursed-lip breathing creates back-pressure during exhalation that helps keep small airways open, reducing air trapping and dyspnea in COPD. Exhalation through pursed lips should be relaxed and longer than inhalation, not forced. Incentive spirometry targets atelectasis rather than air trapping.
During Phase II cardiac rehab, a patient on no heart-rate-altering medications has a resting HR of 72 bpm. Using the Karvonen formula at 60% intensity (age = 60), what is the target exercise heart rate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 125 bpm
Age-predicted HRmax = 220 − 60 = 160 bpm. Heart rate reserve = 160 − 72 = 88 bpm. Target = (88 × 0.60) + 72 = 124.8, about 125 bpm. The Karvonen (heart-rate reserve) method uses resting heart rate, so it's the method to apply when resting HR is given.
Integumentary, lymphatic, metabolic, GI and GU practice questions
During a skin inspection, a therapist identifies an area of nonblanchable erythema over the sacrum of a bed-bound patient. The skin is intact with no open wound. Which pressure injury stage does this finding MOST likely represent?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Stage 1
Intact skin with nonblanchable erythema is a Stage 1 pressure injury (NPIAP). Temperature, firmness or sensation may also change. Stage 2 is partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis, Stage 3 is full-thickness loss into subcutaneous fat, and an unstageable injury is one where slough or eschar hides the depth.
Using the Rule of Nines for an adult patient, what is the estimated total body surface area (TBSA) for burns covering the entire anterior trunk and both arms?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 36%
In the adult Rule of Nines, the anterior trunk is 18% and each arm is 9%, so 18 + 9 + 9 = 36% TBSA. Superficial (first-degree) burns aren't included in TBSA, and children are assessed with the Lund-Browder chart because of their proportionally larger heads.
A homebound patient on warfarin therapy has a wound with yellow slough requiring debridement. Which debridement method is the MOST appropriate for this patient?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Autolytic debridement with moisture-retentive dressing
Anticoagulation raises the bleeding risk of sharp and surgical debridement, and wet-to-dry gauze is nonselective and painful. A moisture-retentive dressing lets the body's own enzymes selectively autolyse the slough, the lowest-risk option for a homebound patient on warfarin. Autolytic debridement shouldn't be used on infected wounds.
During assessment of a patient with bilateral lower extremity swelling, the physical therapist attempts to pinch and lift a skin fold at the dorsal base of the second toe and is unable to do so. This positive finding BEST confirms which diagnosis?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Lymphedema
Inability to pinch a skin fold at the base of the second toe is a positive Stemmer sign, which strongly supports lymphedema and reflects subcutaneous fibrosis. It's typically negative in venous insufficiency, DVT and cardiac edema. A negative sign doesn't rule out early lymphedema.
A physical therapist is applying compression bandaging as part of CDT Phase I for a patient with lymphedema. Which bandage type is BEST indicated for lymphedema management?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Short-stretch inelastic bandages
Short-stretch (low-extensibility) bandages give low pressure at rest and high working pressure when muscles contract against them, which is what drives lymph flow during CDT. Long-stretch elastic wraps apply high resting pressure and little working pressure, so they aren't appropriate for lymphedema bandaging. Stockinette is only a protective under-layer.
During an exercise session, a patient with Type 1 diabetes begins trembling, sweating profusely, and reports feeling dizzy. The physical therapist measures blood glucose at 62 mg/dL. What is the MOST appropriate INITIAL action?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Administer 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck glucose in 15 minutes
A glucose of 62 mg/dL with symptoms is hypoglycemia (below 70 mg/dL). Stop exercise, give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate such as glucose tablets or 4 oz of juice, and recheck in 15 minutes, repeating if still below 70. Giving insulin would worsen it. Emergency services are for a patient who can't safely swallow or is losing consciousness.
A physical therapist is evaluating a 28-year-old patient who presents with right lower quadrant pain, low-grade fever, and nausea. Maximal tenderness is elicited at a point located one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. This finding is MOST consistent with:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Acute appendicitis
Maximal tenderness one-third of the way from the ASIS to the umbilicus is McBurney's point, the classic site in acute appendicitis. With fever and nausea, this is a medical referral, not a musculoskeletal problem. Cholecystitis causes right upper quadrant pain (Murphy sign), and sigmoid diverticulitis usually causes left lower quadrant pain.
A physical therapist is treating a patient with a complete spinal cord injury at T4. The patient reports urinary urgency, high voiding frequency, and episodes of involuntary urine leakage preceded by a strong urge. These bladder symptoms are MOST consistent with:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Spastic bladder from upper motor neuron involvement
An SCI above the sacral micturition center (S2–S4) is an upper motor neuron lesion. The bladder becomes spastic, or reflexive, with small capacity, urgency, frequency and reflex incontinence. Lesions at or below S2–S4, such as cauda equina, produce a flaccid bladder with retention and overflow. At T4, bladder distension can also trigger autonomic dysreflexia.
System interactions practice questions
A physical therapist is evaluating a 60-year-old male with low back pain of 3 weeks' duration. The patient reports constant pain that is unrelieved by any position, night pain that disrupts sleep, unintentional weight loss of 14 pounds over 2 months, and a history of prostate cancer 4 years ago. What is the MOST appropriate action?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Refer the patient to the physician for further medical workup before initiating PT treatment
A history of cancer, constant pain unchanged by position, night pain and unexplained weight loss together raise concern for spinal metastasis; prostate cancer commonly spreads to bone. The right action is referral for medical workup before treatment. Exercise, manual therapy or heat could delay diagnosis or load a weakened vertebra.
A physical therapist receives a referral to treat cervical spine pain in a patient with a 20-year history of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient reports neck pain, occipital headaches, and bilateral hand paresthesias. Which assessment should the PT perform FIRST before initiating any cervical intervention?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Sharp-Purser test to screen for atlantoaxial instability
Long-standing rheumatoid arthritis can erode the transverse ligament of the atlas, causing atlantoaxial instability. Occipital headache and bilateral hand paresthesia raise concern for upper cervical cord involvement. Screen for instability, for example with the Sharp-Purser test, before any cervical intervention, and refer for imaging if concern remains.
A physical therapist evaluates a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus who has been taking prednisone 20 mg daily for 18 months. The patient demonstrates bilateral proximal weakness with hip flexors and deltoids graded 3+/5, moon face, buffalo hump, and multiple bruises on the forearms. Laboratory results show ESR and CRP within normal limits. These findings are MOST consistent with:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Steroid myopathy
Symmetric proximal weakness, Cushingoid features and easy bruising in someone on long-term prednisone, with normal inflammatory markers, point to steroid myopathy rather than a lupus flare or polymyositis. Polymyositis usually raises creatine kinase. Steroid myopathy tends to improve over weeks to months after the dose is reduced, and progressive resistance training helps.
Non-system: equipment, modalities, safety, professional, research practice questions
A physical therapist is fitting a single-point cane for a 68-year-old patient who had a right total knee arthroplasty. In which hand should the patient hold the cane?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Left hand (contralateral to surgical side)
A cane is held in the hand opposite the affected leg. It moves forward with the affected limb, widening the base of support and reducing the load on the affected side during stance. On stairs: up with the good leg, down with the bad, with the cane moving with the affected leg.
A physical therapist is measuring a patient for a new manual wheelchair. The patient's widest hip measurement is 16 inches. What is the MOST appropriate seat width for this wheelchair?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 18 inches
Seat width is the widest hip or thigh measurement plus about 2 inches, so 16 + 2 = 18 inches. Narrower seats cause pressure against the side guards; wider seats make the rims hard to reach and encourage leaning.
A physical therapist is selecting a TENS mode for a patient with chronic low back pain who desires prolonged pain relief lasting several hours after the treatment session ends. Which TENS mode is MOST appropriate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Acupuncture-like (low-rate) TENS
Low-rate, acupuncture-like TENS (roughly 1–10 pps, long pulse duration, strong enough to produce muscle twitch) is associated with endogenous opioid release and relief that can outlast the session. Conventional high-rate TENS works mainly through gating at the dorsal horn, and its relief largely fades once the unit is off.
A physical therapist is selecting the frequency for therapeutic ultrasound treatment of a deep hip flexor strain. The target tissue is located approximately 4 cm below the skin surface. Which ultrasound frequency is MOST appropriate?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 1 MHz
Lower-frequency ultrasound penetrates deeper. At 1 MHz, energy reaches tissues roughly 2–5 cm deep; 3 MHz is absorbed more superficially and suits structures within about 2 cm of the skin. A target 4 cm deep calls for 1 MHz.
A physical therapist is ambulating a patient for the first time after 5 days of bed rest following abdominal surgery. Upon standing, the patient's blood pressure drops from 130/80 mmHg supine to 104/68 mmHg standing, and the patient reports dizziness and lightheadedness. These findings are MOST consistent with:
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Orthostatic hypotension
Orthostatic hypotension is a fall of at least 20 mm Hg systolic or 10 mm Hg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing. This patient dropped 26/12 mm Hg with symptoms after bed rest. Return them to sitting or lying, monitor, and progress position changes gradually. Autonomic dysreflexia causes hypertension, not hypotension.
A physical therapist realizes that an incorrect treatment time was documented in yesterday's daily note. The note has already been signed and filed in the electronic medical record. What is the MOST appropriate method to correct this error?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Write an addendum with the current date referencing the original entry and correcting the error
Once a note is signed, it isn't altered or deleted. Write a dated addendum or late entry that references the original note, states the correction and is signed. That keeps the legal record and audit trail intact.
A physical therapist selects a special test with a reported sensitivity of 0.95 and specificity of 0.60 to screen a patient for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. The test result is NEGATIVE. What can the therapist conclude MOST confidently?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. The patient most likely does NOT have an ACL tear
With sensitivity of 0.95, few people with the condition test negative, so a negative result makes an ACL tear unlikely. That's SnNout (Sensitive, Negative, rule out). No test rules a condition out absolutely. The modest specificity (0.60) means a positive result on this test wouldn't reliably rule the tear in.
Finished all 50? Take the full-length exam free
Start the free 7-day trial (no credit card) to take a complete 225-question NPTE-style practice exam and see how you hold up over the full length of the real test.
Sign up free →What to do with your results
- Sort your misses by content area, not just by count. Three wrong in cardiopulmonary out of 7 matters more than it looks, because that area is worth 22–27 scored items on the real exam.
- Sort them by error type, too: didn't know the content, misread the question, or knew it but reasoned badly. Each needs a different fix; our practice-question method covers all three.
- Re-read the explanations for the questions you got right. A lucky guess on test day won't repeat itself. If a miss came down to a fact you'd forgotten, add it to your review with our free NPTE flashcards.
- Put your weakest areas first in your NPTE study plan, then test them again with fresh questions. Our NPTE practice questions by content area has 62 more, none repeated from this test.
Where these questions come from
Every question here is from the TherapyExams question bank, written in NPTE style by our physical therapist content team and reviewed for this page by Yogesh Dongre, PT (musculoskeletal) and Sneha Bhagwat, PT, MPT (cardiopulmonary and general). They aren't real NPTE items; FSBPT keeps those confidential. For questions scored the way the real exam is scored, FSBPT's own Practice Exam and Assessment Tool includes a retired NPTE form.
If you think an answer or explanation is wrong, tell us. We check every report against current references and correct the page.
NPTE practice test: frequently asked questions
Is this NPTE practice test really free?
Yes. All 50 questions, answers and explanations are on this page with no signup, email or payment. If you sign up for the free 7-day trial (no credit card), you can also take one complete 225-question practice exam.
Is there a free full-length NPTE practice exam?
Yes. TherapyExams' free 7-day trial, with no credit card, includes one complete 225-question NPTE-style practice exam. Premium ($79 one-time for 6 months) adds a second full-length exam.
How many questions are on the real NPTE?
The NPTE-PT has 225 multiple-choice questions in five sections of 45, with five hours of testing time. 180 questions are scored and 45 are unscored pretest items.
Are these real NPTE questions?
No. Real NPTE items are confidential. These are original NPTE-style questions written by physical therapists and weighted to FSBPT's published content outline. FSBPT's PEAT is the only practice product that includes a retired NPTE form.
What score on a practice test means I'm ready for the NPTE?
There isn't a reliable cut-off, because practice banks differ in difficulty and the NPTE uses a scaled score. Watch for consistent improvement across content areas on timed, full-length practice exams. FSBPT's PEAT can give an estimated NPTE score.
How is this test weighted?
Its 50 questions follow the proportions of FSBPT's January 2024 content outline: musculoskeletal and neuromuscular make up about half, then cardiopulmonary, the smaller body systems, system interactions and the five non-system areas.
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Every figure on this page comes from the primary sources below, checked on September 30, 2026. If an official source changes, it overrides this page.